Does the indeterminacy of quantum mechanics arise from our knowledge of the time-evolution of the wave function between measurements ( as described in Schrodinger’s equation), or does it have another origin?
Does the indeterminacy of quantum mechanics arise from our knowledge of the time-evolution of the wave function between measurements ( as described in Schrodinger’s equation), or does it have another origin?
Does the indeterminacy of quantum mechanics arise from our knowledge of the time-evolution of the wave function between measurements ( as described in Schrodinger’s equation), or does it have another origin?